I understand Technical Analysis, which is what prompted my question. How was the figure "40 percent" arrived to ? Because I am not sure how that was calculated. "Upside" (whether the word is could or shall) is in the future, which by definition does not exist presently, and therefore TA cannot measure what does not exist yet.
Thank you. I enjoy reading the board but some explanation on the why/how would help the audience.
(Not sure how many of us embrace witchcraft or rolling bones with our retirement accounts)
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Posted by: user123@spamhole.com
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